>
>hi all,
>
>> Transforming 100 j+0 ohms to 100k j+0 ohms by a single reactance is
>seemingly a bit of a
>> stretch.
>
>it looks like a snap to me! i've got no resistance ("0"), a pure
>reactance (+j100 ohms). i want to go straight out the +imaginary
>axis from 100 ohms to 100k ohms. so, i add an inductor in series
>with the existing 100j + 0 that has a reactance of j99.9k (+0); the
>total is now j100k + 0, isn't it? i used a "single" reactance to
>transform the given impedance to the desired impedance. i think that
>one was too easy... what am i missing?
>
The 100 ohm R is paralleled by 75nH?
Rich...
R. L. Measures, 805-386-3734, AG6K, www.vcnet.com/measures
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